We have a situation where we 3 separate subnets fed from a 7206 router via fiber down to access switches . Now they "think" they need wireless . We want to run the same vlan for the wireless across all 3 downlinks to the access switches . Is this possible ? Can you say make 1 sub interface with the default gateway address aplied and make the other 2 downlinks the same vlan without putting an address on those subinterfaces ? Will the traffic still get routed ? Thinking about testing this out but would like any input on whether this is possible. I leaning towards it probably will not work .
I have not done quite what I think you are describing, so I can not speak from direct experience. But in general if an interface (or a subinterface) does not have an IP address assigned then IP will not be routed on that interface (or subinterface). So I believe that the answer is that it will not work as you describe.
This is router not a layer 3 switch so you can't create a single SVI and apply it to multiple interfaces . I suppose it might work using IRB but that gets kind of messy and you end up bridgeing across 3 interfaces and creating a BVI . Not something we have played with much and the location is 3000 miles away .
This is actually a pretty cool feature, i didn't even know it existed until I was looking for a solution to advertise a subnet (prefix in BGP talk), only if a certain condition existed. This is exactly what conditional advertisements does
j ai une question j ai achete un routeur cisco 887VA-k9 , je le configuré avec la configuration ci- dessous
si je le lier avec mon pc portable sur l un de ses ports directement ça marche toute est bien ( la connexion internet + m...
Attached policy provides CLI access to the Cisco 4G router over text messaging. Two files are in the attached .tar file:
2. PDF with instructions on how to load and use the .tcl file.