We have 3 switches - A, B and C. A is connected to B and B to C via lacp etherchannel dot1q trunks. There is no direct link from A to C.
A is a VTP server. Additionally, it is our root bridge and has SVIs that act as default router interfaces for ~62 vlans.
B is in VTP transparent and has 3 vlans (1, 80 and 999).
C is a VTP client and has received the complete vlan database of from the server.
Access ports on switch C cannot contact their default gateway address (and the rest of the network) unless the access vlan (say 232) is defined on the transparent switch as well. Is this correct behavior for a VTP transparent switch? I was under the impression that switches downstream from a vtp transparent switch would not have this problem.
I thought that if all the switches are in the same VTP domain (not in null) that the server and client would exchange VTP messages. A switch that is in transparent mode will still forward VTP updates received from another switch.
I thought that too. In my example, switch C was seeing the correct output from 'show vlan' but traffic wasn't being passed when I connected a host to an access port. Giuseppe's note warns not to equate vtp propagation w/ L2 connectivity. This was where my understanding of vtp transparent was wrong/incomplete. A detail everything I've read has failed to mention (or I didn't "get" while reading).
In the end, we just made switch B a vtp client. It was simpler than maintaining a separate vlan configuration on that 1 switch.
This is correct , if you think about it , the transparent switch is being used to transport traffic on those vlans on a trunk it will have to have all those vlans created or otherwise how can it tag the packets on the trunks .
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This is actually a pretty cool feature, i didn't even know it existed until I was looking for a solution to advertise a subnet (prefix in BGP talk), only if a certain condition existed. This is exactly what conditional advertisements does
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