We have a WAN utilitizing 2501's that is plug directly into a 1605. The network administrator claims he has to do nothing to allow our WAN traffic which use different IP addresses to pass thru his 1605, that we need to enter a statement on our 2501 to permit this to happen. Can someone help?
Thank You! Yes, I have 3 sites that I have connected by a WAN. However, one of the sites I'm having some trouble, no connection. Each site has a 2600 series router that is suppose to be connected by way of tunnels. The problem site has insisted that my router be plug into a subnet network oon it's campus network through a 1605 router because they don't have control of the 2501. For instance, there is a department on there campus that need to participate on my WAN. Originally, the router plugged directly into that LAN's hub and all was fine. Now, they want the router plugged into another router, there's, so they can control what passes thru. However, they are saying they don't need to make an entry on their 1605 router for my traffic to pass thru it. They're claim I need to make some kind of an entry on the 2501. I don't understand how I can do this nor does it seem practical. Hope I was clear?
So, you control the 2501 and they control the 1605....if this is the case, you set up your router to act as the DCE and you specify the clock rate to the other router, add the routing protocol they are using (if they dont tell you add the common)and use their ip scheme.
Sorry for using the word "Scheme", I was merely stating that you would use their IP addresses. Well, on your s1, i will assume that your WAN connection is coming in (Frame relay, ISDN, etc.) on the second serial port (that will be connecting to the other router), you could use an interior routing protocol (Rip and IGRP--EIGRP) you could add others, but it would be time consuming---these are the easier--unless they tell you the specific protocol.
At the global command line, on the interface (s2) you would issue:
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