If, I say I have 4 imaginary routers, all configured with 4 different AS no# and configured to run BGP in a series configuration. Also, say that all these 4 routers have routes to public addresses and thus can go to Internet. Also, assuming that I do not have any ingress or egress filtering based on source IP address on all these 4 routers.
So, imagine that if I have a host configured with a RFC1918 (say 10.3.0.35/24) IP addressing and is attached to one of these 4 BGP routers.
The question here is that if I were to ping, say to Cisco.com. Can I say that the PING ICMP packets will be able to reach Cisco.com public IP address, but has not way to come back due to the fact that all the 4 BGP and other intermediate routers has no routes to a private subnet of 10.3.0.0.24 ? Again, the assumption here is that there is no whatsoever of any ingress or egress filtering at all the intermediate routers that drops packets (based on source IP) from the host to Cisco.com.
What I am trying to say is that BGP routing protocol is based on destination IP address, despite the souce IP is private and hence as long as the destination IP is valid and available in the routing table, the router will route the packets, right ?
If my statement is wrong, then what is the thing/feature from BGP that can drop a packet with an invalid source IP of 10.3.0.35, despite the fact that there is not any ingress and egress flter that drops 10.3.0.35-source IP packets ?