I was wanting to get ya'lls opinions on this and see if ya'll think it might work.
Basically I have two locations (Amarillo and Chicago) that I want to connect together using VPN and OSPF (loadsharing). Each location will have two internet T1's coming into them. Chicago will have two 2651XM Routers, each having its own connection to the internet. Those routers will then connect to a 2610 Router that will handle the OSPF information. This router will then connect to the LAN.
On the Amarillo side I will have two 2610 Routers, each having it own connection to the internet. These routers will then connect to my PIX. My PIX will then connect to my 3640 Router that will connect to my LAN and two 2651XM routers. The 3640 router will handle the OSPF configuration and the two 2651XM routers will negotiate the VPN connections.
What I want to do is have both VPN connections going at the same time and do loadsharing between the two using OSPF. does this sound like it will work.
I hope I explained this well enough to understand what I have trying to do. I have a Visio drawing of what I want to do, but I don't see a way to attach it.
It sounds like this should work, as long as you have two equal cost links through the two vpn's. Had you planned on setting ospf up through the two links, or how did you plan on learning about the routes on the other end of the vpn?
Yes, I was planning on using OPSF to learn the routes. I had talked with TAC yesterday and they stated that I wouldn't be able to use OSPF though because you can't loadshare across more than one IPSEC tunnel. Have you ever heard of this?
There is always something/somebody throwing a wrench in the works.
I haven't, but I could check into it. I don't know much about IPsec tunnels, but as long as there are two equal cost paths, and OSPF knows about both of them, down through the routing table things should work. There could be complications down in CEF, but I wouldn't think so, since I've seen us load share over gre tunnels....
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