10-21-2002 09:35 PM - edited 03-02-2019 02:15 AM
Dear Sir!
I've such scheme: R1===R2
So, there are 2 links between R1 & R2: there are OSPF on one link and RIPv2
on another.
Now I'm located at R1.
Q: How can I implement RIP path to R2 preferred over OSPF one?
Best regards,
Nick
10-21-2002 10:23 PM
You give the RIP routing process a lower administrative distance than OSPF using the DISTANCE command. The route with the lowest administrative distance will be chosen. By default OSPF is 110 and RIP is 120.
10-21-2002 10:53 PM
Dear Sir!
I suppose - this is not that case - because this networks are directly connected, so router make it choise based upon AD=0 of directly connected networks and not use RIP or OSPF routing information. So, router makes equal-cost balancing over two directly connected links
Is this true?
How can I use RIP routing info only to make routing decision?
Best regards,
Nick
10-23-2002 06:48 AM
You cannot prefer a Routing Protocol over a directly connected link. However, for all subnets beyond R2 you can prefer the RIP routes using the distance command that rsissons recommended. For any packets destined only to R2 from R1 it will take it's directly connected route. All other packets will follow the routing decision.
Your response doesn't make any sense. Your router would load balance only if both costs came across as equal. It makes no difference that you have two directly connected routes to R2. Your two connections as you've already stated are two seperate links (i.e. two seperate subnets). You cannot have an AD=0 for any subnet other than the subnet you are currently using for that individual link.
~rlc
CCNP, CCDA, CNE
10-22-2002 04:36 AM
I certainly hope you tried the solution suggested by rsessions because it is the solution you are looking for. And... for further proof I set your network up in my lab and sure enough, setting the distance on RIP lower than OSPF, say 100, caused the route path to switch to RIP.
Haveagoodun!
cliff
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