We have bought two 1600 routers with serial interfaces and are going to connect two locations over a leased line using ppp on the leased line. Is it possible to configure the routers to be on the same ip subnet. The normal configuration shows that they must be on different subnets effectivly linking two seperate networks. We would like to be able to just extend our existing network to the remote site if this is possible.
This can be achieved through implementing bridging as opposed to routing over the link. You basically need to setup a bridge-group and add this bridge-group to your LAN and WAN interfaces on both sides of the link. In this way you can have one large subnet spanning a WAN link and no need to renumber. Something to keep in mind is that traffic across the WAN link may be considerable as certain traffic for the local LAN may actually also traverse the WAN.
This document gives several answers on frequently asked questions for PFRv3 channel state behavior.
Q1: What are all the channel operational states from a BR (border role) perspective and what are the rules/conditions to be in each st...
The need was to reach an host inside a LAN through a VPN connection managed by the LAN gateway (Cisco 1921).
The LAN gateway performs NAT and there was a dedicate nat rule for the host i wanted to reach through VPN.
I couldn't connect to the hos...
We have 3 identical switches configured by someone else and would like to claim some of the Gigabit ports(G1/G2/G3/G4) for use on servers. When we try to change the wiring and configuration, we run in to connectivity issues. Attached is a des...