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I have been asked to configure and ship two Cisco routers with configuration for a point to point T1.
However, when the customer plugged in the configured routers --- nothing happened. They were able to ping the Router on their physical side of the T1, but not the other. Any ideas? Configs provided below.
Thanks for your help.
Current configuration : 420 bytes
service timestamps debug uptime
service timestamps log uptime
no service password-encryption
hostname --moderator edit-- Router1
enable secret 5 --moderator edit--
enable password --moderator edit--
ip address --moderator edit-- 10.10.10.13 255.255.255.0
ip unnumbered FastEthernet0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Serial0
no ip http server
line con 0
line aux 0
line vty 0 4
no scheduler allocate
Serial0 is down, line protocol is down
Hardware is PQUICC with Fractional T1 CSU/DSU
Interface is unnumbered. Using address of FastEthernet0 (--moderator edit-- 10.10.10.13)
MTU 1500 bytes, BW 1544 Kbit, DLY 20000 usec,
reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255
Encapsulation HDLC, loopback not set
Keepalive set (10 sec)
Last input never, output never, output hang never
Last clearing of "show interface" counters never
Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0
The fast ethernet interfaces on both routers have been given IP addresses on the same subnet (126.96.36.199/24). Each router considers addresses in that range to be connected to the FaE interface, so pings from one router to the other will not follow the default route you have put into the configuration.
You must assign different subnets to each fast ethernet segment.
I'm not sure how to remedy this, as the telco gave me only that information with a mask of 255.255.255.0. I see what you are saying, however I am slightly confused. They are running bridges right now with that same ip/mask schema and it does not seem to cause them a problem.
Also, the fact that I have not set clocking (internal/network) on either of these routers would not cause this undesired behavior (or lack thereof), would it?
If they had bridges and want routers they need to split up the address space. Cut it in half and use an address from each half in the router. Problem is they may half to change a lot of addresses in the hosts at each end.
Maybe they just want you to set up a bridge with the routers. The IP addresses they gave you could be for management access. Do you have any requreiments?
They do need to change the hosts. They want to split them off so traffic is more "contained".
So a new scenario has arisen...
I will configure the router on each side as 188.8.131.52/24 and 184.108.40.206/24 respectively. Here is the corker. They are currently using 220.127.116.11 as their default gateway to the Internet. This is the firewall that manages inbound/outbound. Now that they are splitting off the subnets onto two different "networks", how will I direct the users on the 211 subnet to use the gateway on the 210 subnet? I do not think I can configure the hosts with 192.94.211.x IP addresses and /24 subnet to use the 210 address as their gateway. So they must be using the router on their end as the gateway to get across the network.
Will adding an ip default gateway of 18.104.22.168 on the 22.214.171.124 router allow these users to access the Internet through the firewall on the other network? Or how is this accomplished?
Hi everyone, I would like to thank you in advance for any help you can provide a newcomer like myself!
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