I setup two additional vlans on a new switch, trunked to existing network switches and enabled VTP. All switches now see the other vlans. I tested with a server which works on vlan 1 but as soon as I move it to another vlan, it can't even ping the switch. I am guessing this is becuase the switch interface is set up as vlan 1. So, my question is, can I use the same ip address for vlan 2 and 3? If so, do I just use the int vlan2 command and assign the same ip address? If not, I'll assume, I need to use the int vlan2 command and assign a different address in the same subnet. Please advise...
In order to route between the vlans ( going from vlan 2 ----> vlan 1 ) , you need an ip address on interface vlan 2 that is different from vlan 1 ip address . You cannot use the same ip addres for 2 different vlans. Keep in mind you will also have to readdress your clients beside just adding the vlan interface ip .
The existing network has never been vlanned. We now have blade servers in an enclosure with a switch attached.I have 4 servers on the switch in the enclosure that are trunked to a switch to an app server farm in subnet 192.168.168.X.
The other 4 servers are trunked to a switch in the web server farm in subnet 192.168.252.X.
vlan 1 (native) has an ip address 192.168.168.222. What is the best way to divide and conquer here? Can I leave the native as is, so I don'thave to change all the switch ports on the existing app server farm (subnet 192.168.168.x)?
Then I only need to create vlan 2 to the other subnet (192.168.252.x). In this case, all the other existing servers on the existing switches will have to be assigned to vlan 2. Am I thinking logically here?
Question We run asr9001 with XR 6.1.3, and we have a very long delay to
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Introduction The purpose of this document is to demonstrate the Open
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