I have several Vlans (One voice Vlans and several data Vlans) routed by a L3 switch in my main office.
Off the same L3 switch, I have a router that connects to a branch office router via a dedicated T1 line.
The main office Vlans (Vlans routed by the L3 switch) are on a different IP schema than the branch office (i.e main office vlans = 10.1.x.x /22 and branch office vlan1 = 10.2.x.x /16).
The main office Voice VLan is setup for IP phones which I want my branch office to have. To do this the branch office IP phones will need to get an IP address from the main office voice VLan. What is the best way to do this?
If you want the same vlan to span across the WAN and the router, you need to enable bridging on the L3 devices to bridge. I am not sure why you need the same voice vlan on the branch office. You can create a separate voice vlan belonging to a different subnet and still make the IP phones communicate by routing.
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