I have a voice gateway with 4 PRI's on it. 3 of them are tied together and one of them is separate. For the 3 that are tied together I have 3 dial-peers that send all outgoing calls out each PRI using prefrences on each DP.
The problem I have is that I put on the following DP:
dial-peer voice 99 pots
So based on this, any call to 4035422492 should be sent out port 2/0:23, right?
Also if I do a show dialplan number 4035422492 it matches on the above dialpeer first then on the other ones that have the .T. So again based on that the calls should be routed to port 2/0:23 not to any others.
So when I make a call to that number, and watch on the Gateway router, I see the calls go to one of the other ports. It is basically skipping the above dial-peer and using one of the .T's????/
I think I just answered my own question.....
If you take the direct-inward-dial off of the dial-peer then it does a digit by digit analysis of the number and it works!
Assume a dial-peer intended for inbound matching has an incoming called-number or an answer-address configured and a destination-pattern command is added. After you add the command destination-pattern string , the dial-peer goes operationally down. This is because the router maps a destination-pattern to an address (session target ) or a voice-port (port) for outbound dial-peer matching purposes.
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The short answer is that you don't.... That isn't entirely true while at
the same time it kind of is, but for the most part you don't configure
the softkeys. You enable or disable them via TCL. Here is the long
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Topology: IP Phone > Switches > Microsoft NPS setup to forward 802.1x
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Phone Models 802.1X support? 802.1x flavor Addtl Comment EAP-MD5 EAP-TLS
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