02-21-2007 08:54 PM - edited 03-03-2019 03:52 PM
Hello,
using private AS numbers. RouterA is set for AS 1. I already have a neighbor to RouterB configured for remote AS 2 through a wan connection. I want to peer with RouterC through an ethernet connection but they are also using AS 2. Is this possible? The AS numbers used in this post are just an example
Thank you,
02-21-2007 09:07 PM
Yes, it is possible. As long as the IP reachability is there between the peering devices it should work fine. BGP peering doesn't care about the underlying media type used and in other words, it's media independent. You can have a single router with multiple peers in another AS.
HTH
Sundar
02-21-2007 11:03 PM
It is possible but be aware that you now running what is referred to as internal BGP (iBGP):
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_configuration_example09186a0080093f25.shtml
02-22-2007 03:21 AM
Ahmed,
The conenction between router A and router C would still be an EBGP connection as they are in different AS.
IF you plan to run BGP between router B & C then it would be an IBGP conenction.
HTH
Narayan
02-22-2007 04:46 AM
RouterA = AS1
RouterB = AS2
RouterC = AS2
RouterB and RouterC should be in iBGP
It's definitely possible to connect RouterA to both RouterB and RouterC using eBGP. With this, RouterA will have distributed/redundant connection to AS2
If there is no interconnection between RouterB and RouterC, let us know.
02-23-2007 05:45 PM
RouterB and routerC are different customers. They happen to be using the same AS numbers that can't be modified. RouterA needs to peer with each of them. Filtering would be needed to prevent routing between these two entities.
I would like to thank everyone that has posted a response to my original question
..:}
02-23-2007 07:17 PM
You already wrote a thank you note, thus that mean everything is okay now?
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