I have seen a Ciscopress routing video , i notice that the WAN Links towards BB1 and BB2 Represents the ISPs are advertised in BGP,is that possible?when we need this type of setup?i think its wrong setuppls clear my confusion
This setup is fine. Router R1 is advertising the subnet that's peering with the ISP. The ISP can advertise this as well instead of the "customer". The problem that you'll see is a RIB-failure if both sides are advertising the same network because R1 would see the advertised route and inferior to the locally connected route. Otherwise, if the ISP is not advertising that space, then R1 should advertise it so others will know how to get to your internal networks: the loopback in this case.
We are pleased to announce availability of Beta software for 16.6.3.
16.6.3 will be the second rebuild on the 16.6 release train targeted
towards Catalyst 9500/9400/9300/3850/3650 switching platforms. We are
looking for early feedback from customers befor...
Introduction Featured Speakers Luis Espejel is the Telecommunications
Manager of IENova, an Oil & Gas company. Currently he works with Cisco
IOS® and Cisco IOS XE platforms, and NX to some extent. He has also
worked as a Senior Engineer with the Routing P...
In this session you can learn more about Layer 3 multicast and the best
practices to identify possible threats and take security measures. It
provides an overview of basic multicast, the best security practices for
use of this technology, and recommendati...