06-23-2014 08:31 AM - edited 03-04-2019 11:12 PM
Hello,
I'm having alot of trouble trying to do something reasonably straight forward, or so i thought. I have been given a /29 ip block by my ISP, im using a Cisco 2811 router with an ADSL HWIC. If i set the dialer interface to "ip address negotiated" it works fine, but i want to put that ip block directly on the inside interface so i don't have to use NAT overload or static 121 NAT.
I have tried putting my block of IPs on Gi0/1 and removing "ip address negotiated" from the dialer interface and replacing it with "ip unnumbered GI0/1" thinking it would force the dialer interface to take the ip from the GI0/1 instead. However i just cant get out to the internet when i do this.
Am i missing any commands or am i doing it wrong? I have googled this o nthe web but can't seem to find the answer which is odd, everybody uses NAT instead.
Passing through a public block from an ISP to a physical interface shouldn't be too difficult surely?
Can anyone crack this for me?
Many thanks!
Matthew
Just as an extra note i found this article which is similar to what i want to do but uses a vlan interface (because its a 887 and has switchports for access)
http://forums.thinkbroadband.com/fibre/4133359-cisco-887va.html
06-23-2014 08:42 AM
Ok i have cracked it, i had a typo in the IP address on the physical interface, this now works as intended, it appears i have answered by own question.....
Cheers anyway.
Matt
12-01-2014 01:35 PM
Hi Matt,
Could you post a config of yours.
I am trying to do a similar thing. I've got a block of /29 addresses, and would like to use 1 Public IP for the router and 1 Public IP for the firewall which is behind the router.
Did you have to Bridge the Dialer interface with FA?
How did you end up solving this mystery?
I also do want to avoid 121 NATing.
Thanks!
Dawid
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