03-17-2009 01:40 AM - edited 03-04-2019 03:58 AM
Hi
Does anyone know if you can have a EoMPLS VPN where one end is terminated to a dot1q subinterface and the other end is port based such as below.
Router1
int fa0/0.1
enc dot1q 1 native
!
int fa0/0.2
enc dot1q 2
xconnect 10.10.10.102 2 enc mpls
!
Router2
int fa0/0
xconnect 10.10.10.101 2 enc mpls
!
When I try to do this in a lab the status of the circuit shows as down and doesnt work but works as soon as I change Router2's end to a subinterface with dor1q vlan of 2.
Does anyone know if the above is possible,
Kind Regards
Kev
03-17-2009 04:50 AM
Hi
The only I can see this working is if you make VLAN 2 native on Router 1 instead of VLAN 1. Router 2 will receive the TAG'd frame and bin it. By making VLAN 2 native, no encapsulation will be used so there will be no issue.
03-17-2009 06:02 AM
Kevin,
This can be done using L2VPN Interworking. Please refer to the following link for more information about this feature.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/fsinterw.html#wp1054945
Regards
03-17-2009 06:23 AM
Hi
Thanks for the replies, it looks as though on the above link that the "Ethernet to VLAN over AToM (Bridged): Example " example will do just what I need so will test this one out. Do you know what the "interworking ethernet" does under the pseudowire-class statment, does this remove the dot1q tag before passing it down the pseudowire to the peer router.
Regards
Kev
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