Due to the client requirement initially, I have built 2 OSPF areas (n/ws at different locations) without Area '0' (area 10 & area11). As both locations connect via 'L2L' tunnel, works fine. Inside of the LANS OSPF works fine. Now clent have another location coming up which will have direct P2P link with Area10. So is it recommended to create the new location as Area '0'..?
PS: Client already has legacy OSPF network with area0 and it was predicted earlier that Area10 & 11 will connect to legacy network, but looks like it may not happen in near future.
If the loopback interface is the only interface that is in area 0 then it will make OSPF run well on that router. But it is likely to produce discontiguous backbone area 0 when there are 2 or more OSPF routers and it will cause more problems that it solves.
I believe that the relation between the legacy OSPF and the new OSPF should get careful thought. I do not believe that we have enough information at this point to give you good advice. Can you tell us a bit more about the legacy OSPF and its relationship to these new OSPF areas?
We are pleased to announce availability of Beta software for 16.6.3. 16.6.3 will be the second rebuild on the 16.6 release train targeted towards Catalyst 9500/9400/9300/3850/3650 switching platforms. We are looking for early feedback from custome...