08-09-2009 12:35 AM - edited 03-04-2019 05:41 AM
Hi,
One question regarding the OSPF process ID
"All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information"
Is this statement true?
Somebody told me that it is false statement. any idea?
rdgs
Solved! Go to Solution.
08-09-2009 01:05 AM
Anita,
Your friend is correct. The process ID of OSPF does not have to be the same.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094056.shtml#processid
HTH,
Mark
08-09-2009 08:18 AM
Yes, the process-ID is locally significant.
08-09-2009 01:05 AM
Anita,
Your friend is correct. The process ID of OSPF does not have to be the same.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094056.shtml#processid
HTH,
Mark
08-09-2009 07:51 AM
Hi Mark,
if there are two routers (R1 and R2)
! R1
router ospf 10
network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
! R2
router ospf 20
network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
Can both routers exchange routes?
rdgs
08-09-2009 08:18 AM
Yes, the process-ID is locally significant.
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