09-12-2008 02:04 AM - edited 03-03-2019 11:30 PM
Hi, I have 3 routers set up in this lab (see diag), the LAN at the bottom can ping router R3-2610's ethernet port at the top, but not the SE0/0 port. Now R0-2610 and R1-2610 are using RIPv2 and I have not added any dynamic routing to R3 yet, what would I need to do regarding RIPv2 in this one?
Would I just setup RIPv2 again and will R0-2610 then receive this so my LAN can ping SE0/0 on the R3-2610?
09-12-2008 03:11 AM
Where is your serial0/0 of R3 is connected ?
Is it up ?
You need to run dynamic routing on R3 to make netwoks , (if any connected ) beyond R3 , reachble from your LAN in the bottom.
So run RIPv2 on R3 also,and advertise the networks connected to it.
HTH...rate if helpful..
09-12-2008 06:24 AM
Hello Andy,
>> Would I just setup RIPv2 again and will R0-2610 then receive this so my LAN can ping SE0/0 on the R3-2610?
yes, you can do in this way follow the instructions of the previous post and do it also on R3, take care if needed to have a network command matching the R3-R1 lan IP subnet on R1 too.
as an alternate way to do this:
- have R1 advertise R3-R1 lan ip subnet
have on R3
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 R1.lanR3-R1.ipaddress
Hope to help
Giuseppe
09-12-2008 06:41 AM
Yeah, that is my worry as R3's E0/0 is on 10.10.10.x and R1's E0/0 is on 10.10.10.x too so will this confuse the RIPv2 that's advertising?
Then again is it possible to put R3 E0/0 into it's own VLAN on the switch and then use a different IP?
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